Exam Tips

Paper 1

Each question has three parts:
• one part testing knowledge (4 marks)
A factual answer of no more than one short paragraph is required.
• one part testing knowledge and understanding includes selecting relevant and
appropriate information (7 marks)
Answers require at least two paragraphs of writing.
• one part testing knowledge, understanding and analytical and evaluative ability
(14 marks)
Total 75 marks. Externally assessed.

 In part (a), how long an answer is expected for 4 marks?
The source is expected to trigger at least four points of information. This should not be an extensive piece of writing, perhaps 7-8 lines, though individuals will differ in their styles. Development of a point will usually be rewarded as long as it is accurate.

In part (a), how often should we expect each item of the syllabus to be tested?
At least one question must be asked from each of the three sections.

In part (b), how much has to be written for full marks?
The examiners will reward quality rather than quantity. Thus a shorter answer which identifies and explains several factors relating to the question will gain higher marks than a longer one which merely describes one or two factors. It is important that students are encouraged to apply their knowledge to the specific question, rather than to write down everything they know about the topic in general.

In parts (b) and (c), what is the difference between a factor identified, described and explained?
Identification of a factor requires highlighting an event, decision, person’s impact etc., and describing it means giving some more detail on that factor. Students are then expected to explain the part played by factors in the topic of the question, i.e. to link the factor back to the question. The more factors that are identified and explained, the higher the mark is likely to be.
How is the top level of marks accessed?
In part (b) questions, good explanations of several factors should attract high marks. For part (c) questions, the best candidates should also offer an evaluation of the factors relevant to the question.

Paper 2

Each question:

• consists of four separate parts: (a), (b), (c) and (d); each part may be divided into
one or more sub-parts
• requires the ability to interpret and analyse resources in the question; there
may be diagrams, graphs, maps, photographs, tables and written material. Part
(d) of each question specifically assesses analysis skills.
• requires the evaluation of information.
Total 75 marks. Externally assessed.

 Now that candidates answer on the question paper, how can they fit all the information they wish to give in to a limited space?

Enough space is given for students to write their answers – approximately 2 lines per mark, except for one word answers. We have found that the new layout encourages a better structure of answer than previously.

What abbreviations are acceptable on an examination paper?
Commonly used abbreviations such as ‘e.g.’ (‘for example’) and ‘i.e.’ (‘that is’) are acceptable, as are commonly used geographical abbreviations, such as ‘HEP’ for ‘hydro-electric power’. However, the use of abbreviations such as ‘b/c’ for ‘because’, ‘b/w’ for ‘between’ and ‘Pak’ for ‘Pakistan’ is discouraged.
Candidates should also include reference to units of measurement where relevant; these might include ‘mms’ for ‘millimetres’, ‘°C’ for ‘degrees Celsius’, and so on.

What is the meaning of ‘1 (or 2) mark res’ that sometimes appears on the mark scheme?
‘Res’ stands for ‘reserve’, and indicates where a mark is to be withheld where an incomplete answer is offered. For instance, if a question asks for advantages and disadvantages, and the candidate offers only one of these, they will be unable to score full marks if marks have been reserved for providing both.

What is meant by the term ‘To what extent is...?’?
This instructs the candidates to give the advantages and problems associated with a suggested type of development.